June 28, 2011

Your Desire Shall Be For Your Husband

Today I'd like to talk about Genesis 3:16. It's in the Garden of Eden when Adam and Eve have just sinned by eating the forbidden fruit, and God is pronouncing his judgment on them. Specifically, this verse is directed toward Eve as part of her punishment (the other part of her punishment is pain in pregnancy and childbirth). Here are several translations of this verse:





  • Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you. (NIV)


  • And you will desire to control your husband, but he will rule over you." (New Living Translation)


  • Yet, you will long for your husband, and he will rule you." (God's Word Translation)


  • Thy desire [shall be] to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee. (King James Version)


  • Still your desire will be for your husband, but he will be your master. (Bible in Basic English)


  • Thou shalt be under thy husband's power, and he shall have dominion over thee. (Douay-Rheims Bible)



Let's explore this verse more. What exactly does "desire for your husband" mean? Why does Adam now rule over her? Here's what some commentators have to say on this subject.




Barnes' Notes on the Bible:

The woman had taken the lead in the transgression. In the fallen state, she is to be subject to the will of her husband. "Desire" does not refer to sexual desire in particular. Genesis 4:7. It means, in general, "turn," determination of the will. "The determination of thy will shall be yielded to thy husband, and, accordingly, he shall rule over thee." The second clause, according to the parallel structure of the sentence, is a climax or emphatic reiteration of the first, and therefore serves to determine its meaning. Under fallen man, woman has been more or less a slave. In fact, under the rule of selfishness, the weaker must serve the stronger. Only a spiritual resurrection will restore her to her true place, as the help-meet for man.




Clarke's commentary:

Though at their creation both were formed with equal rights, and the woman had probably as much right to rule as the man; but subjection to the will of her husband is one part of her curse; and so very capricious is this will often, that a sorer punishment no human being can well have, to be at all in a state of liberty, and under the protection of wise and equal laws.




Gill's exposition:
And thy desire shall be to thy husband, which some understand of her desire to the use of the marriage bed, as Jarchi, and even notwithstanding her sorrows and pains in child bearing; but rather this is to be understood of her being solely at the will and pleasure of her husband; that whatever she desired should be referred to him, whether she should have her desire or not, or the thing she desired; it should be liable to be controlled by his will, which must determine it, and to which she must be subject, as follows:

And he shall rule over thee, with less kindness and gentleness, with more rigour and strictness: it looks as if before the transgression there was a greater equality between the man and the woman, or man did not exercise the authority over the woman he afterwards did, or the subjection of her to him was more pleasant and agreeable than now it would be; and this was her chastisement, because she did not ask advice of her husband about eating the fruit, but did it of herself, without his will and consent, and tempted him to do the same.





Wesley's commentary:
She is condemned to a state of sorrow and a state of subjection: proper punishments of a sin in which she had gratified her pleasure and her pride.



Matthew Henry's Commentary:
She is here put into a state of subjection. The whole sex, which by creation was equal with man, is, for sin, made inferior, and forbidden to usurp authority, 1 Tim. 2:11, 12. The wife particularly is hereby put under the dominion of her husband, and is not sui juris-at her own disposal, of which see an instance in that law, Num. 30:6-8, where the husband is empowered, if he please, to disannul the vows made by the wife. This sentence amounts only to that command, Wives, be in subjection to your own husbands; but the entrance of sin has made that duty a punishment, which otherwise it would not have been. If man had not sinned, he would always have ruled with wisdom and love; and, if the woman had not sinned, she would always have obeyed with humility and meekness; and then the dominion would have been no grievance: but our own sin and folly make our yoke heavy. If Eve had not eaten forbidden fruit herself, and tempted her husband to eat it, she would never have complained of her subjection; therefore it ought never to be complained of, though harsh; but sin must be complained of, that made it so. Those wives who not only despise and disobey their husbands, but domineer over them, do not consider that they not only violate a divine law, but thwart a divine sentence.
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It's important to remember that the woman's subjection to her husband was a punishment brought about due to her sin. The man also sinned and was given his own punishment. In both cases, God made the punishment fit the crime: the man showed he was passive, so God took away his leisure time and made him work. The woman showed she was headstrong, so God took away her freedom and made her submissive.

In Jesus, the old punishments were not completely revoked (women still have great pain in childbirth, and men still must toil over the land), but He did bring about a new life and a new covenant. I think this is why in Ephesians 5 and Titus 2, Paul says that women are still under men's authority but also exhorts their husbands to love and care for them, even laying down their lives for them. Suddenly, the man's role as leader changed from a tyrant to a Christlike leader. As such, I don't think you can make a Biblical case for husbands to be overbearing tyrants to their wives, because we are under a new covenant with Jesus as the author.

2 comments:

Sam said...

"woman's subjection to her husband was a punishment brought about due to her sin"

I think this is wrong. 1Ti 2:13 says:

"But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence."

The first reason Paul gives for this has nothing to do with the punishment of the Fall, but creation.

"For Adam was first formed, then Eve."

The second reason:

"And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression"

seems to have more to do with a susceptibility in women to being deceived by Satan when they step out of their God-intended role, rather than punishment.

I would take it that before the Fall, God intended Eve to submit to Adam and it was BECAUSE she wasn't submissive that the Satan could influence her.

1Cor says the same thing:

"But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God."

The reason man (Adam) is head over the woman (Eve) is explained by Paul in later verses:

"For the man is not of the woman; but the woman of the man. Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man. For this cause ought the woman to have power on her head because of the angels."

The word "power" is the word "authority." What it says is that it is becoming of a woman to wear a symbol of her husband's authority on her head, at certain times, as instruction to angelic beings. This again has nothing to do with the Fall in the garden and is explained by looking back to creation.

My 2 cents worth…

Anonymous said...

You are right that "the woman's subjection to her husband was ...due to ... sin." But do not think that the woman was punished to get the man as leader. In that case, should we say the man is rewarded for his sin by getting the right to lead?

Instead, sin caused the world to be messed up and a lot of things that are not the will of God to happen:
1) God said: "Satan will harm humans (the serpent will crush your heel, in literal terms). This does not mean Satan is right when harming humans. 2) God said that the earth will produce thorns and thistles. This does not mean those who sow thorns on another person's land does God's work. 3) God says men will rule over women. This is sin, and men will not be praised for doing it.

Jesus said that no believer should lord it over another. (Mat. 20:25-28) All believers should submit to one another (Eph 5:21), which means that submission in the Biblical sense is not "to authority" - not all can be authorities - but an attitude of cooperation suitable for all. 1 Cor 7:3-5 calls for mutual authority in the bedroom, not one person as boss and the other obeying. Both sexes were made in God's image to rule the earth (Gen 1:26-28), not one person the other. In Song of Songs, no partner bosses the other around.

And Sam of the first comment takes things out of context: The 1 Tim 2 passage say a woman (singular, it is English and not the Bible's Greek which think "I suffer not a woman" speaks of al women instead of one woman the letter writer and Timothy the recipient knew in his day) was not at that stage (the tense in Greek makes "I do not currently allow" a better translation than "I never allow") allowed to teach the man (one particular man which Timothy and Paul knew). Why? She appears to have taught him women was first and was not deceived. She had to learn (the truth of the Bible) and live a holy life before teaching. Deception is no reason to permanently not teach. (See 1 Tim 1:13 - Paul said he was deceived, but could teach when deception lifted.

His idea that head (the literal Greek word for the thing above the neck) means leader is out of context: "The head of every man is Christ" could not mean "the leader of every man is Christ." Jesus is not the leader of every atheist or Muslim man. And he is, or should be, the leader of the Christian woman.
Sam takes ""For the man is not of the woman" out of context with : "Nevertheless neither is the man without the woman, nor the woman without the man, in the Lord. As the woman is of the man, even so is the man also by the woman; but all things of God." Sam interprets a sentence combination of equality about inequality. A woman having power on her head means "she has the power to decide for herself what to wear." Sadly, Sam is helped by some Bible translators doing a horrible job there: Some actually insert "a woman should have *a symbol of the husband's* power on her head. The Greek say "power" - and this never refers to someone else's power over you, but the power of the one spoken of, in this case the woman.

Here is a 1 Cor 11 series: https://biblicalpersonhood.wordpress.com/tag/1-cor-11/

"Life is not about waiting for the storms to pass, but learning to dance in the rain."